Below is one of question CCNA Exam Protocol and Concepts chapter 7.
How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three)
* They both use hop count as a metric.
* They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
* They both broadcast their updates to their neighbors.
* They both send subnet mask information in their updates.
* They both provide for authentication of update sources.
* They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.
If you want to know more,click here for DOWNLOAD
Thursday, November 27, 2008
Wednesday, October 22, 2008
FREE POST BANNER & BLOG LINK
NOW AVAILABLE!
In order to the feast of Idul Fitri (although it is late) and inspired by some bloggers I, like my game, I take it.
Namely to provide opportunities for bloggers who want to install his blog link and install the banner for free on this blog. Once again FREE !!!
With Motto: 'From FREE to give something that is also FREE'
Later, banners / blog that will be inserted into permanent alias I do not delete or in the rotation.
To Blog, I will make a link.
The banner for free, its position is in the bottom of the posting.
For example, such as Banner in this post.
I give this opportunity for 1 (one) month, since today (22 October 2008 to 22 November 2008).
This means that in the time range, each of my post, the banner has the right to participate selected to appear.
The criteria can be established blog that is:
1. Ads must be a blog.
2. Blog be active. At least 10 posting and 4 posts per month.
3. personal blog. (Permissible personal blog with the domain or use
blogspot,wordpress, etc.).
4. Unviolate applicable law.
5. Terms and conditions can change at any time and without notice.
Courtney was the only. Fortunately, there who want to backlink affection here. Or even make a review. Rev.'s about.
From the entrance application, I have the right to choose any of the show and that is not. Any decision could not be proceeded.
Please send your banner (width = "468" height = "60") that have been uploaded (for example, to imagecows.net), you simply send imagenya link and a link to your blog email: sopana888@gmail.com with the subject "Blog and Banner Free. "
Special to Blog, 5 (five) blog will be my first pair as soon as possible.
Therefore, the announcement was made free for the Blogger & Banner posters.
Once excited FREE. Yours FREE ...
*This announcement just for Indonesian Blogger Only except for Free Banner.
In order to the feast of Idul Fitri (although it is late) and inspired by some bloggers I, like my game, I take it.
Namely to provide opportunities for bloggers who want to install his blog link and install the banner for free on this blog. Once again FREE !!!
With Motto: 'From FREE to give something that is also FREE'
Later, banners / blog that will be inserted into permanent alias I do not delete or in the rotation.
To Blog, I will make a link.
The banner for free, its position is in the bottom of the posting.
For example, such as Banner in this post.
I give this opportunity for 1 (one) month, since today (22 October 2008 to 22 November 2008).
This means that in the time range, each of my post, the banner has the right to participate selected to appear.
The criteria can be established blog that is:
1. Ads must be a blog.
2. Blog be active. At least 10 posting and 4 posts per month.
3. personal blog. (Permissible personal blog with the domain or use
blogspot,wordpress, etc.).
4. Unviolate applicable law.
5. Terms and conditions can change at any time and without notice.
Courtney was the only. Fortunately, there who want to backlink affection here. Or even make a review. Rev.'s about.
From the entrance application, I have the right to choose any of the show and that is not. Any decision could not be proceeded.
Please send your banner (width = "468" height = "60") that have been uploaded (for example, to imagecows.net), you simply send imagenya link and a link to your blog email: sopana888@gmail.com with the subject "Blog and Banner Free. "
Special to Blog, 5 (five) blog will be my first pair as soon as possible.
Therefore, the announcement was made free for the Blogger & Banner posters.
Once excited FREE. Yours FREE ...
*This announcement just for Indonesian Blogger Only except for Free Banner.
Tuesday, October 21, 2008
Wired vs Wireless Networking
About Wired LANs
Wired LANs use Ethernet cables and network adapters. Although two computers can be directly wired to each other using an Ethernet crossover cable, wired LANs generally also require central devices like hubs, switches, or routers to accommodate more computers.
For dial-up connections to the Internet, the computer hosting the modem must run Internet Connection Sharing or similar software to share the connection with all other computers on the LAN. Broadband routers allow easier sharing of cable modem or DSL Internet connections, plus they often include built-in firewall support.
Installation
Ethernet cables must be run from each computer to another computer or to the central device. It can be time-consuming and difficult to run cables under the floor or through walls, especially when computers sit in different rooms. Some newer homes are pre-wired with CAT5 cable, greatly simplifying the cabling process and minimizing unsightly cable runs.
The correct cabling configuration for a wired LAN varies depending on the mix of devices, the type of Internet connection, and whether internal or external modems are used. However, none of these options pose any more difficulty than, for example, wiring a home theater system.
After hardware installation, the remaining steps in configuring either wired or wireless LANs do not differ much. Both rely on standard Internet Protocol and network operating system configuration options. Laptops and other portable devices often enjoy greater mobility in wireless home network installations (at least for as long as their batteries allow).
Cost
Ethernet cables, hubs and switches are very inexpensive. Some connection sharing software packages, like ICS, are free; some cost a nominal fee. Broadband routers cost more, but these are optional components of a wired LAN, and their higher cost is offset by the benefit of easier installation and built-in security features.
Reliability
Ethernet cables, hubs and switches are extremely reliable, mainly because manufacturers have been continually improving Ethernet technology over several decades. Loose cables likely remain the single most common and annoying source of failure in a wired network. When installing a wired LAN or moving any of the components later, be sure to carefully check the cable connections.
Broadband routers have also suffered from some reliability problems in the past. Unlike other Ethernet gear, these products are relatively new, multi-function devices. Broadband routers have matured over the past several years and their reliability has improved greatly.
Performance
Wired LANs offer superior performance. Traditional Ethernet connections offer only 10 Mbps bandwidth, but 100 Mbps Fast Ethernet technology costs little more and is readily available. Although 100 Mbps represents a theoretical maximum performance never really achieved in practice, Fast Ethernet should be sufficient for home file sharing, gaming, and high-speed Internet access for many years into the future.
Wired LANs utilizing hubs can suffer performance slowdown if computers heavily utilize the network simultaneously. Use Ethernet switches instead of hubs to avoid this problem; a switch costs little more than a hub.
Security
For any wired LAN connected to the Internet, firewalls are the primary security consideration. Wired Ethernet hubs and switches do not support firewalls. However, firewall software products like ZoneAlarm can be installed on the computers themselves. Broadband routers offer equivalent firewall capability built into the device, configurable through its own software.
About Wireless LANs
Popular WLAN technologies all follow one of the three main Wi-Fi communication standards. The benefits of wireless networking depend on the standard employed:
• 802.11b was the first standard to be widely used in WLANs.
• The 802.11a standard is faster but more expensive than 802.11b; 802.11a is more commonly found in business networks.
• The newest standard, 802.11g, attempts to combine the best of both 802.11a and 802.11b, though it too is more a more expensive home networking option.
Installation
Wi-Fi networks can be configured in two different ways:
• "Ad hoc" mode allows wireless devices to communicate in peer-to-peer mode with each other.
• "Infrastructure" mode allows wireless devices to communicate with a central node that in turn can communicate with wired nodes on that LAN.
Most LANs require infrastructure mode to access the Internet, a local printer, or other wired services, whereas ad hoc mode supports only basic file sharing between wireless devices.
Both Wi-Fi modes require wireless network adapters, sometimes called WLAN cards. Infrastructure mode WLANs additionally require a central device called the access point. The access point must be installed in a central location where wireless radio signals can reach it with minimal interference. Although Wi-Fi signals typically reach 100 feet (30 m) or more, obstructions like walls can greatly reduce their range.
Cost
Wireless gear costs somewhat more than the equivalent wired Ethernet products. At full retail prices, wireless adapters and access points may cost three or four times as much as Ethernet cable adapters and hubs/switches, respectively. 802.11b products have dropped in price considerably with the release of 802.11g, and obviously, bargain sales can be found if shoppers are persistent.
Reliability
Wireless LANs suffer a few more reliability problems than wired LANs, though perhaps not enough to be a significant concern. 802.11b and 802.11g wireless signals are subject to interference from other home applicances including microwave ovens, cordless telephones, and garage door openers. With careful installation, the likelihood of interference can be minimized.
Wireless networking products, particularly those that implement 802.11g, are comparatively new. As with any new technology, expect it will take time for these products to mature.
Performance
Wireless LANs using 802.11b support a maximum theoretical bandwidth of 11 Mbps, roughly the same as that of old, traditional Ethernet. 802.11a and 802.11g WLANs support 54 Mbps, that is approximately one-half the bandwidth of Fast Ethernet. Furthermore, Wi-Fi performance is distance sensitive, meaning that maximum performance will degrade on computers farther away from the access point or other communication endpoint. As more wireless devices utilize the WLAN more heavily, performance degrades even further.
Overall, the performance of 802.11a and 802.11g is sufficient for home Internet connection sharing and file sharing, but generally not sufficient for home LAN gaming.
The greater mobility of wireless LANs helps offset the performance disadvantage. Mobile computers do not need to be tied to an Ethernet cable and can roam freely within the WLAN range. However, many home computers are larger desktop models, and even mobile computers must sometimes be tied to an electrical cord and outlet for power. This undermines the mobility advantage of WLANs in many homes.
Security
In theory, wireless LANs are less secure than wired LANs, because wireless communication signals travel through the air and can easily be intercepted. To prove their point, some engineers have promoted the practice of wardriving, that involves traveling through a residential area with Wi-Fi equipment scanning the airwaves for unprotected WLANs. On balance, though, the weaknesses of wireless security are more theoretical than practical. WLANs protect their data through the Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption standard, that makes wireless communications reasonably as safe as wired ones in homes.
source : http://compnetworking.about.com/cs/homenetworking/a/homewiredless_2.htm
Wired LANs use Ethernet cables and network adapters. Although two computers can be directly wired to each other using an Ethernet crossover cable, wired LANs generally also require central devices like hubs, switches, or routers to accommodate more computers.
For dial-up connections to the Internet, the computer hosting the modem must run Internet Connection Sharing or similar software to share the connection with all other computers on the LAN. Broadband routers allow easier sharing of cable modem or DSL Internet connections, plus they often include built-in firewall support.
Installation
Ethernet cables must be run from each computer to another computer or to the central device. It can be time-consuming and difficult to run cables under the floor or through walls, especially when computers sit in different rooms. Some newer homes are pre-wired with CAT5 cable, greatly simplifying the cabling process and minimizing unsightly cable runs.
The correct cabling configuration for a wired LAN varies depending on the mix of devices, the type of Internet connection, and whether internal or external modems are used. However, none of these options pose any more difficulty than, for example, wiring a home theater system.
After hardware installation, the remaining steps in configuring either wired or wireless LANs do not differ much. Both rely on standard Internet Protocol and network operating system configuration options. Laptops and other portable devices often enjoy greater mobility in wireless home network installations (at least for as long as their batteries allow).
Cost
Ethernet cables, hubs and switches are very inexpensive. Some connection sharing software packages, like ICS, are free; some cost a nominal fee. Broadband routers cost more, but these are optional components of a wired LAN, and their higher cost is offset by the benefit of easier installation and built-in security features.
Reliability
Ethernet cables, hubs and switches are extremely reliable, mainly because manufacturers have been continually improving Ethernet technology over several decades. Loose cables likely remain the single most common and annoying source of failure in a wired network. When installing a wired LAN or moving any of the components later, be sure to carefully check the cable connections.
Broadband routers have also suffered from some reliability problems in the past. Unlike other Ethernet gear, these products are relatively new, multi-function devices. Broadband routers have matured over the past several years and their reliability has improved greatly.
Performance
Wired LANs offer superior performance. Traditional Ethernet connections offer only 10 Mbps bandwidth, but 100 Mbps Fast Ethernet technology costs little more and is readily available. Although 100 Mbps represents a theoretical maximum performance never really achieved in practice, Fast Ethernet should be sufficient for home file sharing, gaming, and high-speed Internet access for many years into the future.
Wired LANs utilizing hubs can suffer performance slowdown if computers heavily utilize the network simultaneously. Use Ethernet switches instead of hubs to avoid this problem; a switch costs little more than a hub.
Security
For any wired LAN connected to the Internet, firewalls are the primary security consideration. Wired Ethernet hubs and switches do not support firewalls. However, firewall software products like ZoneAlarm can be installed on the computers themselves. Broadband routers offer equivalent firewall capability built into the device, configurable through its own software.
About Wireless LANs
Popular WLAN technologies all follow one of the three main Wi-Fi communication standards. The benefits of wireless networking depend on the standard employed:
• 802.11b was the first standard to be widely used in WLANs.
• The 802.11a standard is faster but more expensive than 802.11b; 802.11a is more commonly found in business networks.
• The newest standard, 802.11g, attempts to combine the best of both 802.11a and 802.11b, though it too is more a more expensive home networking option.
Installation
Wi-Fi networks can be configured in two different ways:
• "Ad hoc" mode allows wireless devices to communicate in peer-to-peer mode with each other.
• "Infrastructure" mode allows wireless devices to communicate with a central node that in turn can communicate with wired nodes on that LAN.
Most LANs require infrastructure mode to access the Internet, a local printer, or other wired services, whereas ad hoc mode supports only basic file sharing between wireless devices.
Both Wi-Fi modes require wireless network adapters, sometimes called WLAN cards. Infrastructure mode WLANs additionally require a central device called the access point. The access point must be installed in a central location where wireless radio signals can reach it with minimal interference. Although Wi-Fi signals typically reach 100 feet (30 m) or more, obstructions like walls can greatly reduce their range.
Cost
Wireless gear costs somewhat more than the equivalent wired Ethernet products. At full retail prices, wireless adapters and access points may cost three or four times as much as Ethernet cable adapters and hubs/switches, respectively. 802.11b products have dropped in price considerably with the release of 802.11g, and obviously, bargain sales can be found if shoppers are persistent.
Reliability
Wireless LANs suffer a few more reliability problems than wired LANs, though perhaps not enough to be a significant concern. 802.11b and 802.11g wireless signals are subject to interference from other home applicances including microwave ovens, cordless telephones, and garage door openers. With careful installation, the likelihood of interference can be minimized.
Wireless networking products, particularly those that implement 802.11g, are comparatively new. As with any new technology, expect it will take time for these products to mature.
Performance
Wireless LANs using 802.11b support a maximum theoretical bandwidth of 11 Mbps, roughly the same as that of old, traditional Ethernet. 802.11a and 802.11g WLANs support 54 Mbps, that is approximately one-half the bandwidth of Fast Ethernet. Furthermore, Wi-Fi performance is distance sensitive, meaning that maximum performance will degrade on computers farther away from the access point or other communication endpoint. As more wireless devices utilize the WLAN more heavily, performance degrades even further.
Overall, the performance of 802.11a and 802.11g is sufficient for home Internet connection sharing and file sharing, but generally not sufficient for home LAN gaming.
The greater mobility of wireless LANs helps offset the performance disadvantage. Mobile computers do not need to be tied to an Ethernet cable and can roam freely within the WLAN range. However, many home computers are larger desktop models, and even mobile computers must sometimes be tied to an electrical cord and outlet for power. This undermines the mobility advantage of WLANs in many homes.
Security
In theory, wireless LANs are less secure than wired LANs, because wireless communication signals travel through the air and can easily be intercepted. To prove their point, some engineers have promoted the practice of wardriving, that involves traveling through a residential area with Wi-Fi equipment scanning the airwaves for unprotected WLANs. On balance, though, the weaknesses of wireless security are more theoretical than practical. WLANs protect their data through the Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption standard, that makes wireless communications reasonably as safe as wired ones in homes.
source : http://compnetworking.about.com/cs/homenetworking/a/homewiredless_2.htm
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Label: Wired vs Wireless Networking
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Label: Wired vs Wireless Networking
technorati: Wired vs Wireless Networking
Monday, October 13, 2008
How to Make Dynamips as Real Router
Now Do ISCW Practicals on Real Internet Connections not on Simulated LAB
This post and the Contents inside it are for those people who are preparing for CCNP ISCW and in need of practicing on Real Devices on Real Connections. However Cisco Devices are not alway that easier to purchase.
I dont have any idea maybe some of you have already done this but since no one ever brought this topic before i decided to share this valuable Piece of work with you. i believe it will be worth for I.T related people
At CCNP level we must focus on Concepts and Concept is based on how much you implement them practically. Unless you do on real devices you cannot learn well. because the simulations or books will not produce results and you may not be able to tackle the problems in your work.
Lots of people go for Simulations. But i think Simulations are not good because of 2 reasons, they never are accurate, and they lack lots of IOS commands and features. this can affect our knowledge.
Lots of people asked before practicing PPPoE and DSL Labs along with IPSEC and GRE using Dynamips. Lot of time people practice such labs using LAN interfaces because they donot have Real Routers to connect to Real Internet Connections.
This small presentation will show you how you can connect Dynamips to internet and establish a Real Internet Connection using Dialer interface. Ofcouse you must have atleast running DSL connection and any small DSL Modem that is cheaper and easier to buy, that you connect to Dynamips.
Modem will be just a Layer 1 device only doing nothing other than Physically connecting Telephone line.
You will see how Dynamips will Negotiate and Initiate Internet connection with ISP
using PPP encapsulations,
Dynamips getting Real IP on its Dialer Interface.
Realtime Debugging outputs between Router interface and ISP
Leasing Ip Addreses to Physical Computers on LAN and Across Internet to WAN clients
Accepting Incoming Connections from Internet
all does Dynamips just like a Real Router. In this video the Dynamips acts as a ADSL ROUTER, Incoming VPN, PPPoE Internet Connetion, and a DHCP Server.
if you are interested in setup then consider these videos.
http://www.4shared.com/file/62580751/6f8892ff/dynamips_videos.html
refrence :http://www.sadikhov.com/forum/index.php?showtopic=137700
This post and the Contents inside it are for those people who are preparing for CCNP ISCW and in need of practicing on Real Devices on Real Connections. However Cisco Devices are not alway that easier to purchase.
I dont have any idea maybe some of you have already done this but since no one ever brought this topic before i decided to share this valuable Piece of work with you. i believe it will be worth for I.T related people
At CCNP level we must focus on Concepts and Concept is based on how much you implement them practically. Unless you do on real devices you cannot learn well. because the simulations or books will not produce results and you may not be able to tackle the problems in your work.
Lots of people go for Simulations. But i think Simulations are not good because of 2 reasons, they never are accurate, and they lack lots of IOS commands and features. this can affect our knowledge.
Lots of people asked before practicing PPPoE and DSL Labs along with IPSEC and GRE using Dynamips. Lot of time people practice such labs using LAN interfaces because they donot have Real Routers to connect to Real Internet Connections.
This small presentation will show you how you can connect Dynamips to internet and establish a Real Internet Connection using Dialer interface. Ofcouse you must have atleast running DSL connection and any small DSL Modem that is cheaper and easier to buy, that you connect to Dynamips.
Modem will be just a Layer 1 device only doing nothing other than Physically connecting Telephone line.
You will see how Dynamips will Negotiate and Initiate Internet connection with ISP
using PPP encapsulations,
Dynamips getting Real IP on its Dialer Interface.
Realtime Debugging outputs between Router interface and ISP
Leasing Ip Addreses to Physical Computers on LAN and Across Internet to WAN clients
Accepting Incoming Connections from Internet
all does Dynamips just like a Real Router. In this video the Dynamips acts as a ADSL ROUTER, Incoming VPN, PPPoE Internet Connetion, and a DHCP Server.
if you are interested in setup then consider these videos.
http://www.4shared.com/file/62580751/6f8892ff/dynamips_videos.html
refrence :http://www.sadikhov.com/forum/index.php?showtopic=137700
Monday, July 28, 2008
Risk Management
Introduction
The traditional role of the risk manager as corporate steward is evolving as organizations face an increasingly complex and uncertain future. The mandate to clearly identify, measure, manage, and control risk has been expanded and integrated into best practice management of a bank. Today's risk manager is a key member of the senior executive team who helps define business opportunities from a risk-return perspective, presents unique ways of looking at them, has direct input into the configuration of products and services, and ensures the transparency of all the risks. Innovation necessitates new yardsticks for measuring and monitoring the resulting activities. The savvy corporate leader uses risk management as both a sword and a shield.
At the end of the last millennium, financial institutions and investors experienced increased volatility in the major financial and commodity markets, with many financial crises. At the start of the new millennium, we are in the midst of a technological revolution resulting in changes in the operation of markets, increased access to information, changes in the types of services available to investors, as well as major changes in the production and distribution of financial services.
If there is concern about an institution's ability to manage risk, then its share price will be penalized.
Risk is a cost of doing business for a financial institution and consequently best practice risk management is a benefit to our shareholders. To manage the risks facing an institution we must have a clearly defined set of risk policies and the ability to measure risk. But what do we measure? And how do we measure such risks? We must also have a best practice infrastructure. The starting point is that we need a framework.
This book provides such a framework. The content of the book is consistent with our own risk management strategy and experience. Our risk management strategy is designed to ensure that our senior management operates together in partnership to control risk while ensuring the independence of the risk management function. Improvements in analytic models and systems technology have greatly facilitated our ability to measure and manage risk. However, the new millennium brings new challenges. There are risks that we can identify and measure and there is the uncertainty of the unknown. The challenge facing risk managers is to minimize the consequences of the unknown. This book should help all risk and business managers address the issues arising from risk and uncertainty.
And you will get further information, please read this book:
Risk Management
By:
Michel Crouhy
Dan Galai
Robert Mark
Mc Graw-Hill Book
Let’s Study Risk Management. Enjoy it.
The traditional role of the risk manager as corporate steward is evolving as organizations face an increasingly complex and uncertain future. The mandate to clearly identify, measure, manage, and control risk has been expanded and integrated into best practice management of a bank. Today's risk manager is a key member of the senior executive team who helps define business opportunities from a risk-return perspective, presents unique ways of looking at them, has direct input into the configuration of products and services, and ensures the transparency of all the risks. Innovation necessitates new yardsticks for measuring and monitoring the resulting activities. The savvy corporate leader uses risk management as both a sword and a shield.
At the end of the last millennium, financial institutions and investors experienced increased volatility in the major financial and commodity markets, with many financial crises. At the start of the new millennium, we are in the midst of a technological revolution resulting in changes in the operation of markets, increased access to information, changes in the types of services available to investors, as well as major changes in the production and distribution of financial services.
If there is concern about an institution's ability to manage risk, then its share price will be penalized.
Risk is a cost of doing business for a financial institution and consequently best practice risk management is a benefit to our shareholders. To manage the risks facing an institution we must have a clearly defined set of risk policies and the ability to measure risk. But what do we measure? And how do we measure such risks? We must also have a best practice infrastructure. The starting point is that we need a framework.
This book provides such a framework. The content of the book is consistent with our own risk management strategy and experience. Our risk management strategy is designed to ensure that our senior management operates together in partnership to control risk while ensuring the independence of the risk management function. Improvements in analytic models and systems technology have greatly facilitated our ability to measure and manage risk. However, the new millennium brings new challenges. There are risks that we can identify and measure and there is the uncertainty of the unknown. The challenge facing risk managers is to minimize the consequences of the unknown. This book should help all risk and business managers address the issues arising from risk and uncertainty.
And you will get further information, please read this book:
Risk Management
By:
Michel Crouhy
Dan Galai
Robert Mark
Mc Graw-Hill Book
Let’s Study Risk Management. Enjoy it.
Database Jargon
What is a Database?
A database is simply a collection of data, stored in an organized way.
For example, it may be:
_ an address list
_ employee details
_ details about items in stock.
A simple database could be used to store the names and addresses of those you send Christmas cards to, or details of your CD collection. A more complex database could be used to store the data that you need to run your company, e.g. supplier, customer, stock and order details.
Database Jargon
If you have never used a database before, you might not have encountered some of the database terminology that we will use in this book. Here are brief definitions of the terms you will come across.
Table: All the data on one topic is stored in a table. A table could contain details of the employees that work for your company. In a simple database, you might have only one table. More complex ones may consist of several tables.
Record: The data for a single item in a table is held in that item’s record. Using the employee table example, each employee would have their own record within the employee table.
Field: A field is a piece of information within a record e.g. in your employee table, things like surname, job title, date of birth, or salary grade.
Field name: The label, or name, given to a field.
Primary key: A special field that will contain a unique piece of information in each record e.g. StaffID.
Relationship: A relationship is used to link two tables through a common field.
Join: The process of linking two tables is often referred to as joining them.
Data definition: The process of defining, or describing, the data to be stored. This will involve specifying the data type (text, number, date), the field size, and how it is related to other tables.
Data manipulation: This term describes any work done on existing data within your tables. Sorting and extracting data and producing reports from it would all be examples of data manipulation.
Enjoy it.
A database is simply a collection of data, stored in an organized way.
For example, it may be:
_ an address list
_ employee details
_ details about items in stock.
A simple database could be used to store the names and addresses of those you send Christmas cards to, or details of your CD collection. A more complex database could be used to store the data that you need to run your company, e.g. supplier, customer, stock and order details.
Database Jargon
If you have never used a database before, you might not have encountered some of the database terminology that we will use in this book. Here are brief definitions of the terms you will come across.
Table: All the data on one topic is stored in a table. A table could contain details of the employees that work for your company. In a simple database, you might have only one table. More complex ones may consist of several tables.
Record: The data for a single item in a table is held in that item’s record. Using the employee table example, each employee would have their own record within the employee table.
Field: A field is a piece of information within a record e.g. in your employee table, things like surname, job title, date of birth, or salary grade.
Field name: The label, or name, given to a field.
Primary key: A special field that will contain a unique piece of information in each record e.g. StaffID.
Relationship: A relationship is used to link two tables through a common field.
Join: The process of linking two tables is often referred to as joining them.
Data definition: The process of defining, or describing, the data to be stored. This will involve specifying the data type (text, number, date), the field size, and how it is related to other tables.
Data manipulation: This term describes any work done on existing data within your tables. Sorting and extracting data and producing reports from it would all be examples of data manipulation.
Enjoy it.
Analisis Data Statistik : WHAT IS ECONOMETRICS?
Literally interpreted, econometrics means “economic measurement.” Although measurement is an important part of econometrics, the scope of econometrics is much broader, as can be seen from the following quotations: Econometrics, the result of a certain outlook on the role of economics, consists of the application of mathematical statistics to economic data to lend empirical support to the models constructed by mathematical economics and to obtain numerical results.
Econometrics may be defined as the quantitative analysis of actual economic phenomena based on the concurrent development of theory and observation, related by appropriate methods of inference.
Econometrics may be defined as the social science in which the tools of economic theory, mathematics, and statistical inference are applied to the analysis of economic phenomena.
Econometrics is concerned with the empirical determination of economic laws.
The art of the econometrician consists in finding the set of assumptions that are both sufficiently specific and sufficiently realistic to allow him to take the best possible advantage of the data available to him.
Econometricians are a positive help in trying to dispel the poor public image of economics (quantitative or otherwise) as a subject in which empty boxes are opened by assuming the existence of can-openers to reveal contents which any ten economists will interpret in 11 ways.
The method of econometric research aims, essentially, at a conjunction of economic theory and actual measurements, using the theory and technique of statistical inference as a bridge pier.
METHODOLOGY OF ECONOMETRICS
How do econometricians proceed in their analysis of an economic problem?
That is, what is their methodology? Although there are several schools of thought on econometric methodology, we present here the traditional or classical methodology, which still dominates mpirical research in economics and other social and behavioral sciences.
Broadly speaking, traditional econometric methodology proceeds along the following lines:
1. Statement of theory or hypothesis.
2. Specification of the mathematical model of the theory
3. Specification of the statistical, or econometric, model
4. Obtaining the data
5. Estimation of the parameters of the econometric model
6. Hypothesis testing
7. Forecasting or prediction
8. Using the model for control or policy purposes.
For further information, please read a book: Basic Econometric 4th Ed. Gujarati.(2004)
Enjoy....
Econometrics may be defined as the quantitative analysis of actual economic phenomena based on the concurrent development of theory and observation, related by appropriate methods of inference.
Econometrics may be defined as the social science in which the tools of economic theory, mathematics, and statistical inference are applied to the analysis of economic phenomena.
Econometrics is concerned with the empirical determination of economic laws.
The art of the econometrician consists in finding the set of assumptions that are both sufficiently specific and sufficiently realistic to allow him to take the best possible advantage of the data available to him.
Econometricians are a positive help in trying to dispel the poor public image of economics (quantitative or otherwise) as a subject in which empty boxes are opened by assuming the existence of can-openers to reveal contents which any ten economists will interpret in 11 ways.
The method of econometric research aims, essentially, at a conjunction of economic theory and actual measurements, using the theory and technique of statistical inference as a bridge pier.
METHODOLOGY OF ECONOMETRICS
How do econometricians proceed in their analysis of an economic problem?
That is, what is their methodology? Although there are several schools of thought on econometric methodology, we present here the traditional or classical methodology, which still dominates mpirical research in economics and other social and behavioral sciences.
Broadly speaking, traditional econometric methodology proceeds along the following lines:
1. Statement of theory or hypothesis.
2. Specification of the mathematical model of the theory
3. Specification of the statistical, or econometric, model
4. Obtaining the data
5. Estimation of the parameters of the econometric model
6. Hypothesis testing
7. Forecasting or prediction
8. Using the model for control or policy purposes.
For further information, please read a book: Basic Econometric 4th Ed. Gujarati.(2004)
Enjoy....
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Label: analisis data, analisis data statistik, ECONOMETRICS, jasa riset pasar, jasa survei, konsultan riset pasar, konsultan statistik, konsultan survey, olahdata statistik, Statistical Theory
technorati: analisis data, analisis data statistik, ECONOMETRICS, jasa riset pasar, jasa survei, konsultan riset pasar, konsultan statistik, konsultan survey, olahdata statistik, Statistical Theory
Label: analisis data, analisis data statistik, ECONOMETRICS, jasa riset pasar, jasa survei, konsultan riset pasar, konsultan statistik, konsultan survey, olahdata statistik, Statistical Theory
technorati: analisis data, analisis data statistik, ECONOMETRICS, jasa riset pasar, jasa survei, konsultan riset pasar, konsultan statistik, konsultan survey, olahdata statistik, Statistical Theory
SQL Commands
Below, given some Common SQL Command. Items bracketed [] are optional.
For a complete list of MySQL supported commands, visit the MySQL
website at http://www.mysql.com.
ALTER
ALTER TABLE table_name ADD [COLUMN] ...;
CREATE
CREATE DATABASE database_name;
CREATE TABLE table_name;
DELETE
DELETE FROM table_name [WHERE ...];
DROP
DROP DATABASE database_name;
DROP TABLE table_name;
GRANT
GRANT privilege ON table_name ►►
TO user [IDENTIFIED BY 'password'] [WITH GRANT OPTION];
INSERT
INSERT [INTO] table_name VALUES (...);
SELECT
SELECT ... [FROM table_name(s)] ►►
[WHERE ...] [GROUP BY ... ] [ORDER BY ...];
SET
SET PASSWORD FOR user@localhost = ►►
PASSWORD("password");
SET PASSWORD FOR user@"%.visibooks.com" = ►►
PASSWORD("password");
SET PASSWORD FOR user@"%" = PASSWORD("password");
SHOW
SHOW DATABASES;
SHOW TABLES;
UPDATE
UPDATE table_name SET column_name=value [WHERE ...];
USE
USE database_name;
Let’s study SQL ! Enjoy It !
For a complete list of MySQL supported commands, visit the MySQL
website at http://www.mysql.com.
ALTER
ALTER TABLE table_name ADD [COLUMN] ...;
CREATE
CREATE DATABASE database_name;
CREATE TABLE table_name;
DELETE
DELETE FROM table_name [WHERE ...];
DROP
DROP DATABASE database_name;
DROP TABLE table_name;
GRANT
GRANT privilege ON table_name ►►
TO user [IDENTIFIED BY 'password'] [WITH GRANT OPTION];
INSERT
INSERT [INTO] table_name VALUES (...);
SELECT
SELECT ... [FROM table_name(s)] ►►
[WHERE ...] [GROUP BY ... ] [ORDER BY ...];
SET
SET PASSWORD FOR user@localhost = ►►
PASSWORD("password");
SET PASSWORD FOR user@"%.visibooks.com" = ►►
PASSWORD("password");
SET PASSWORD FOR user@"%" = PASSWORD("password");
SHOW
SHOW DATABASES;
SHOW TABLES;
UPDATE
UPDATE table_name SET column_name=value [WHERE ...];
USE
USE database_name;
Let’s study SQL ! Enjoy It !
Thursday, June 05, 2008
CCNA Synopsis
SYNOPSIS
The Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) exam is an entry-level certification designed for network administrators and engineers. It can be taken in one of two forms. First, the CCNA can be taken in one, single exam - The CCNA Composite 640-802. Second, it can be taken as a two part exam designated Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices 1 and 2 (ICND1 and ICND2).
A majority of the professional networking world consider the CCNA to be the defacto Network Engineering exam that qualifies a user to operate a small to medium business network. Furthermore, the CCNA opens doors for new exams, such as the CCNP (Cisco Certified Network Professional) and CCDP (Cisco Certified Design Professional) certifications. Therefore, the exam is not in any way easy.
Overall, the CCNA has several subjects that it covers in detail, but the primary subjects of concern are Routing and Switching, including but not limited to the use of: IP, IGRP, Serial, Frame Relay, IP RIP, VLANs, RIP, Ethernet, and access lists. After attaining the CCNA, the exam is valid for three years before it must be recertified.
(Source : cramsession.com)
The Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) exam is an entry-level certification designed for network administrators and engineers. It can be taken in one of two forms. First, the CCNA can be taken in one, single exam - The CCNA Composite 640-802. Second, it can be taken as a two part exam designated Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices 1 and 2 (ICND1 and ICND2).
A majority of the professional networking world consider the CCNA to be the defacto Network Engineering exam that qualifies a user to operate a small to medium business network. Furthermore, the CCNA opens doors for new exams, such as the CCNP (Cisco Certified Network Professional) and CCDP (Cisco Certified Design Professional) certifications. Therefore, the exam is not in any way easy.
Overall, the CCNA has several subjects that it covers in detail, but the primary subjects of concern are Routing and Switching, including but not limited to the use of: IP, IGRP, Serial, Frame Relay, IP RIP, VLANs, RIP, Ethernet, and access lists. After attaining the CCNA, the exam is valid for three years before it must be recertified.
(Source : cramsession.com)
CCNA FAQ - Cisco Certified Network Associate Frequently Asked Question
Q » What are the different types of Academies and their responsibilities in the Cisco Certified Networking Associate (CCNA) Program?
A »There are three types of Academies: Local Academies, Regional Academies and Cisco Academy Training Centers (CATCs).
Local Academies teach the curriculum to students. These are usually high schools/secondary schools and colleges, but can also be other agencies with education programs.
Regional Academies are usually colleges, but may also be high schools/secondary schools, education service centers and other agencies with education programs. Regional Academy instructors train and mentor Local Academy instructors in the operation of the program and the teaching of the curriculum.
CATCs are Cisco-selected Regional Academies that train instructors from other Regional Academies. CATC instructors get their training directly from Cisco.
CATCs and Regional Academies can also be Local Academies if they teach the curriculum to students.
Curriculum
Q » How many hours of instruction do the CCNA and CCNP online curricula include?
A » The online portion of the curriculum contains eight 70-hour blocks of study, which total - 560 hours. High schools/secondary schools typically teach the CCNA (courses 1- 4) in two academic years, whereas colleges and universities typically use one academic year to deliver the entire CCNA curriculum. The CCNP courses are typically taught over two academic years. The CCNP curriculum is 70-hours per course, lab-based with additional out-of-class lab time of 14 hours compulsory, for a total of 84 hours.
Q » How is the online curriculum provided to the students?
A » The online portion of the curriculum resides on a Web server at each Academy. Students access the curriculum from their workstations over the classroom LAN. Students also have access to view the curriculum online during non-classroom time.
Q » Does the curriculum teach students things that will be useful for maintaining non-Cisco networks?
A » The curriculum is a vendor-neutral. While Cisco equipment is used to practice and reinforce certain concepts, students gain broad-based knowledge of the operation of networks, the differences between various types of networking products, how to design and troubleshoot networks, and other general topics.
Q » What kinds of controls are there on course materials?
A » The curriculum is copyrighted. Access to the curriculum should be provided only to students enrolled in Networking Academy classes and the personnel within the institution offering the program.
Equipment
Q » What type of equipment is needed to teach the CCNA curriculum?
A » The labs include routers, switches, software, cables and first-year product support.
Q » Does Cisco donate lab equipment to schools in the program?
A » Cisco donates refurbished lab equipment to CCNA Regional Academies and to CCNA CATCs. Cisco also donates CCNA lab equipment to Academies in officially recognized Empowerment Zones and Least Developed Countries.
Q » Are multiple Academies allowed to share lab equipment?
A » Academies may share equipment, although Cisco believes that each institution is better able to provide a quality instructional experience if it has its own lab.
Instructor Training
Q » How are Academy instructors trained?
A » In the CCNA program, Local Academies are trained by Regional Academies, Regional Academies are trained by CATCs and CATCs are trained by Cisco.
Q » Where is the training for Academy instructors held?
A » Training is typically conducted at Regional Academies and CATC training sites.
Q » How long is CCNA instructor training?
A » Training for CCNA is at least 19 days.
Certification and Assessment
Q » When should a student take the Cisco Certified Network Associate exam?
A » Cisco recommends taking the CCNA exam after completing the fourth course of the CCNA curriculum.
Q » Where is the CCNA test given?
A » The CCNA test is given at Pearson VUE testing centers worldwide.
Q » What is Cisco Certified Network Professional (CCNP) Program?
A » The CCNP program follows CCNA. The curriculum consists of CCNP 1 - 4 and prepares students to obtain their CCNP certification. This is a more advanced curriculum covering Advanced Routing (CCNP 1), Remote Access (CCNP 2), Multi-Layer Switching (CCNP 3) and Network Troubleshooting (CCNP 4).
Q » What is Cisco Certified Internetworking Expert (CCIE) Program?
A » The CCIE program has no required curriculum, although many of Cisco's commercial classes taught by Cisco's Training Partners are suggested prerequisites to the CCIE exam. The exam consists of both written and practical exams. CCIEs have world-renowned internetworking expertise and are widely thought to be the most knowledgeable networking personnel available.
Q » Are CCNA students assessed as they progress through the CCNA curriculum?
A » Yes. Cisco has developed a state-of-the-art assessment system to provide students, instructors, administrators, and Cisco personnel with detailed data on student progress.
General Program Questions
Q » What sort of commitments do Academies make when they sign up for the program?
A » CATCs and Regional Academies sign contracts that list their commitments as well as Cisco’s commitments to them. For more information on the CATC and Regional Academy contract process, please fill out an online application. The relationship between Regional Academies and Local Academies is owned by the Regional Academy, which may or may not ask its Local Academies to sign a contract.
Q » What is the process of starting an Academy?
A » A school can begin the process of starting an Academy by filling out the Cisco Networking Academy Program online application.
Q » Where are the various Networking Academies located at?
A » For a complete list of Academies see the Academy Locator.
Q » Are for-profit training centers eligible for participation in the Program?
A » Yes, Cisco has created a special program to work with proprietary institutions known as the Accredited Career College Program. For details contact netacad-acc@cisco.com or the Accredited Career College FAQs.
(Source : cna.te.ugm.ac.id)
A »There are three types of Academies: Local Academies, Regional Academies and Cisco Academy Training Centers (CATCs).
Local Academies teach the curriculum to students. These are usually high schools/secondary schools and colleges, but can also be other agencies with education programs.
Regional Academies are usually colleges, but may also be high schools/secondary schools, education service centers and other agencies with education programs. Regional Academy instructors train and mentor Local Academy instructors in the operation of the program and the teaching of the curriculum.
CATCs are Cisco-selected Regional Academies that train instructors from other Regional Academies. CATC instructors get their training directly from Cisco.
CATCs and Regional Academies can also be Local Academies if they teach the curriculum to students.
Curriculum
Q » How many hours of instruction do the CCNA and CCNP online curricula include?
A » The online portion of the curriculum contains eight 70-hour blocks of study, which total - 560 hours. High schools/secondary schools typically teach the CCNA (courses 1- 4) in two academic years, whereas colleges and universities typically use one academic year to deliver the entire CCNA curriculum. The CCNP courses are typically taught over two academic years. The CCNP curriculum is 70-hours per course, lab-based with additional out-of-class lab time of 14 hours compulsory, for a total of 84 hours.
Q » How is the online curriculum provided to the students?
A » The online portion of the curriculum resides on a Web server at each Academy. Students access the curriculum from their workstations over the classroom LAN. Students also have access to view the curriculum online during non-classroom time.
Q » Does the curriculum teach students things that will be useful for maintaining non-Cisco networks?
A » The curriculum is a vendor-neutral. While Cisco equipment is used to practice and reinforce certain concepts, students gain broad-based knowledge of the operation of networks, the differences between various types of networking products, how to design and troubleshoot networks, and other general topics.
Q » What kinds of controls are there on course materials?
A » The curriculum is copyrighted. Access to the curriculum should be provided only to students enrolled in Networking Academy classes and the personnel within the institution offering the program.
Equipment
Q » What type of equipment is needed to teach the CCNA curriculum?
A » The labs include routers, switches, software, cables and first-year product support.
Q » Does Cisco donate lab equipment to schools in the program?
A » Cisco donates refurbished lab equipment to CCNA Regional Academies and to CCNA CATCs. Cisco also donates CCNA lab equipment to Academies in officially recognized Empowerment Zones and Least Developed Countries.
Q » Are multiple Academies allowed to share lab equipment?
A » Academies may share equipment, although Cisco believes that each institution is better able to provide a quality instructional experience if it has its own lab.
Instructor Training
Q » How are Academy instructors trained?
A » In the CCNA program, Local Academies are trained by Regional Academies, Regional Academies are trained by CATCs and CATCs are trained by Cisco.
Q » Where is the training for Academy instructors held?
A » Training is typically conducted at Regional Academies and CATC training sites.
Q » How long is CCNA instructor training?
A » Training for CCNA is at least 19 days.
Certification and Assessment
Q » When should a student take the Cisco Certified Network Associate exam?
A » Cisco recommends taking the CCNA exam after completing the fourth course of the CCNA curriculum.
Q » Where is the CCNA test given?
A » The CCNA test is given at Pearson VUE testing centers worldwide.
Q » What is Cisco Certified Network Professional (CCNP) Program?
A » The CCNP program follows CCNA. The curriculum consists of CCNP 1 - 4 and prepares students to obtain their CCNP certification. This is a more advanced curriculum covering Advanced Routing (CCNP 1), Remote Access (CCNP 2), Multi-Layer Switching (CCNP 3) and Network Troubleshooting (CCNP 4).
Q » What is Cisco Certified Internetworking Expert (CCIE) Program?
A » The CCIE program has no required curriculum, although many of Cisco's commercial classes taught by Cisco's Training Partners are suggested prerequisites to the CCIE exam. The exam consists of both written and practical exams. CCIEs have world-renowned internetworking expertise and are widely thought to be the most knowledgeable networking personnel available.
Q » Are CCNA students assessed as they progress through the CCNA curriculum?
A » Yes. Cisco has developed a state-of-the-art assessment system to provide students, instructors, administrators, and Cisco personnel with detailed data on student progress.
General Program Questions
Q » What sort of commitments do Academies make when they sign up for the program?
A » CATCs and Regional Academies sign contracts that list their commitments as well as Cisco’s commitments to them. For more information on the CATC and Regional Academy contract process, please fill out an online application. The relationship between Regional Academies and Local Academies is owned by the Regional Academy, which may or may not ask its Local Academies to sign a contract.
Q » What is the process of starting an Academy?
A » A school can begin the process of starting an Academy by filling out the Cisco Networking Academy Program online application.
Q » Where are the various Networking Academies located at?
A » For a complete list of Academies see the Academy Locator.
Q » Are for-profit training centers eligible for participation in the Program?
A » Yes, Cisco has created a special program to work with proprietary institutions known as the Accredited Career College Program. For details contact netacad-acc@cisco.com or the Accredited Career College FAQs.
(Source : cna.te.ugm.ac.id)
Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices, Part 2 (ICND2)
Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices, Part 2 (ICND2), is a Cisco®-authorized, self-paced learning tool for CCNA® foundation learning. This book provides you with the knowledge needed to install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium-size branch office enterprise network, including configuring several switches and routers, connecting to a WAN, and implementing network security.
In Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices, Part 2 (ICND2), you will study actual router and switch output to aid your understanding of how to configure these devices. Many notes, tips, and cautions are also spread throughout the book. Specific topics include constructing medium-size routed and switched networks, OSPF and EIGRP implementation, access control lists (ACL), address space management, and LAN extensions into a WAN. Chapter-ending review questions illustrate and help solidify the concepts presented in the book.
Review the Cisco IOS® Software command structure for routers and switches
Build LANs and understand how to overcome problems associated with Layer 2 switching
Evaluate the differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols
Configure and troubleshoot OSPF in a single area
Configure and troubleshoot EIGRP
Identify and filter traffic with ACLs
Use Network Address Translation (NAT) and Port Address Translation (PAT) to conserve IPv4 address space and implement IPv6
Connect different sites over WANs or the Internet using IPsec VPN, SSL VPN, leased line, and Frame Relay connections
http://rapidshare.com/files/116675573/ICND1_2ndEdition_jan2008.7z
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
In Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices, Part 2 (ICND2), you will study actual router and switch output to aid your understanding of how to configure these devices. Many notes, tips, and cautions are also spread throughout the book. Specific topics include constructing medium-size routed and switched networks, OSPF and EIGRP implementation, access control lists (ACL), address space management, and LAN extensions into a WAN. Chapter-ending review questions illustrate and help solidify the concepts presented in the book.
Review the Cisco IOS® Software command structure for routers and switches
Build LANs and understand how to overcome problems associated with Layer 2 switching
Evaluate the differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols
Configure and troubleshoot OSPF in a single area
Configure and troubleshoot EIGRP
Identify and filter traffic with ACLs
Use Network Address Translation (NAT) and Port Address Translation (PAT) to conserve IPv4 address space and implement IPv6
Connect different sites over WANs or the Internet using IPsec VPN, SSL VPN, leased line, and Frame Relay connections
http://rapidshare.com/files/116675573/ICND1_2ndEdition_jan2008.7z
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices, Part 1 (ICND1), 2nd Ed
Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices, Part 1 (ICND1), Second Edition, is a Cisco®-authorized, self-paced learning tool for CCENT™ and CCNA® foundation learning. This book provides you with the knowledge needed to configure Cisco switches and routers to operate in corporate internetworks. By reading this book, you will gain a thorough understanding of concepts and configuration procedures required to build a multiswitch, multirouter, and multigroup internetwork that uses LAN and WAN interfaces for the most commonly used routing and routed protocols.
In Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices, Part 1 (ICND1), you will study installation and configuration information that network administrators need to install and configure Cisco products. Specific topics include building a simple network, Ethernet LANs, wireless LANs (WLANs), LAN and WAN connections, and network management. Chapter-ending review questions illustrate and help solidify the concepts presented in the book.
Understand the principles on which basic networks operate
Explore the operation and configuration of LANs
Extend the boundaries of the network by implementing and securing wireless connectivity
Configure routers to provide connectivity between different networks
Learn about IP addressing number conversion
Establish WAN interconnectivity using point-to-point links, DSL, and cable services
Configure Network Address Translation (NAT)
Use Cisco IOS® commands to determine the layout of a Cisco network topology
Manage the router startup and work with IOS configuration files and Cisco IOS images
This volume is in the Certification Self-Study Series offered by Cisco Press®. Books in this series provide officially developed self-study solutions to help networking professionals understand technology implementations and prepare for the Cisco Career Certifications examinations.
http://rapidshare.com/files/116675573/ICND1_2ndEdition_jan2008.7z
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
In Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices, Part 1 (ICND1), you will study installation and configuration information that network administrators need to install and configure Cisco products. Specific topics include building a simple network, Ethernet LANs, wireless LANs (WLANs), LAN and WAN connections, and network management. Chapter-ending review questions illustrate and help solidify the concepts presented in the book.
Understand the principles on which basic networks operate
Explore the operation and configuration of LANs
Extend the boundaries of the network by implementing and securing wireless connectivity
Configure routers to provide connectivity between different networks
Learn about IP addressing number conversion
Establish WAN interconnectivity using point-to-point links, DSL, and cable services
Configure Network Address Translation (NAT)
Use Cisco IOS® commands to determine the layout of a Cisco network topology
Manage the router startup and work with IOS configuration files and Cisco IOS images
This volume is in the Certification Self-Study Series offered by Cisco Press®. Books in this series provide officially developed self-study solutions to help networking professionals understand technology implementations and prepare for the Cisco Career Certifications examinations.
http://rapidshare.com/files/116675573/ICND1_2ndEdition_jan2008.7z
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
Network Fundamentals - Chapter 11 Exam Answers
1
Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
* UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/12
In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
after a system restart
as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
* when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration3
Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A
* enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A4
When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
* Console
Telnet
SSH5
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
* RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login6
Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
* show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory7
Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
* global configuration mode
privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
* enable mode8
What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
* Router(config)# hostname Fontana
9
The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
* Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
* Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
* Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2
10
Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
* IP assigned to the serial port on Router B
11
Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
* NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description
12
Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
show flash
show NVRAM
* show startup-config
* show running-config
show version
13
Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
hot keys
* context-check
context-sensitive
* structured check
command override
* command syntax check
14
Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
* The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
* The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.
15
Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
* Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z
16
The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
* Issue a show interfaces command on router C.
17
In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?
RAM
ROM
* Flash
NVRAM
18
On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
toinen
19
A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
* SSH
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
* UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/12
In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
after a system restart
as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
* when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration3
Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A
* enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A4
When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
* Console
Telnet
SSH5
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
* RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login6
Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
* show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory7
Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
* global configuration mode
privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
* enable mode8
What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
* Router(config)# hostname Fontana
9
The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
* Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
* Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
* Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2
10
Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
* IP assigned to the serial port on Router B
11
Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
* NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description
12
Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
show flash
show NVRAM
* show startup-config
* show running-config
show version
13
Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
hot keys
* context-check
context-sensitive
* structured check
command override
* command syntax check
14
Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
* The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
* The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.
15
Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
* Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z
16
The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
* Issue a show interfaces command on router C.
17
In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?
RAM
ROM
* Flash
NVRAM
18
On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
toinen
19
A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
* SSH
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
Network Fundamentals - Chapter 10 Exam Answers
1 
Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
*connecting a PC to a router's console port
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
*connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds2
Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
They segment broadcast domains.
* They interconnect different network technologies.
* Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
* They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.3
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
* router
hub
switch
wireless access point4
A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
* UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber
5
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
* Five broadcast domains are present.
* Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
*Five networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.
6
Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
* DB 60
* Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
* smart serial
RJ 45
7
How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
* 2046
2048
4094
4096
8
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
both host A and B would be successful
* host A would be successful, host B would fail
host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail
9
Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
* 192.168.3.54
10
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
* Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
* Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
* Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.
11
A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
* 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
12
Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
wireless access point
router
hub
* switch
13
Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
2
* 3
4
5
14
What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
* loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device
15
To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
* crossover cable
straight through cable
rollover cable
V.35 cable
16
What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
* greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
*limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
*greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated
17
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
* 255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
18
Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
* 255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
19
What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
* roll-over
patch cable
20
Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
* console interface
21
What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
* cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
* the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
* the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
22
Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
* router
repeater
23
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
* 5
7
Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
*connecting a PC to a router's console port
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
*connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds2
Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
They segment broadcast domains.
* They interconnect different network technologies.
* Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
* They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.3
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
* router
hub
switch
wireless access point4
A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
* UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber
5
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
* Five broadcast domains are present.
* Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
*Five networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.
6
Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
* DB 60
* Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
* smart serial
RJ 45
7
How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
* 2046
2048
4094
4096
8
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
both host A and B would be successful
* host A would be successful, host B would fail
host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail
9
Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
* 192.168.3.54
10
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
* Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
* Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
* Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.
11
A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
* 255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
12
Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
wireless access point
router
hub
* switch
13
Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
2
* 3
4
5
14
What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
* loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device
15
To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
* crossover cable
straight through cable
rollover cable
V.35 cable
16
What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
* greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
*limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
*greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated
17
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
* 255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
18
Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
* 255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
19
What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
* roll-over
patch cable
20
Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
* console interface
21
What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
* cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
* the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
* the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
22
Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
* router
repeater
23
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
* 5
7
Network Fundamentals - Chapter 9 Exam Answers
1
In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
* Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.
2 Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Network layer
Transport layer
* Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
* Data-link layer
3 Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
* the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
* the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable
4 What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
* addressing
* error detection
* frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution
5 When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
* The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
6 What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
recognizes streams of bits
* identifies the network layer protocol
* makes the connection with the upper layers identifies the source and destination applications
* insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting
7 What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
MAC sublayer
Physical layer
* Logical Link
Control sublayer
Network layer
8 Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
* A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.
9 Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?
* header field - preamble and stop frame
data field - network layer packet
data field - physical addressing
trailer field - FCS and SoF
10 Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
* Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
* A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.
11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
* Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.
12 Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
application
physical
transport
internet
data link
* network access
13 What is the primary purpose of ARP?
translate URLs to IP addresses
* resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses
14
Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
* No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
15
Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
* A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
* A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.
16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
dynamically assigned
* copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
* contains a 3 byte OUI
* 6 bytes long
32 bits long
17 Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
reduction in cross-talk
* minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
* division into broadcast domains
increase in the throughput of communications
18 What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
* coaxial thicknet
copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
optical fiber
* shielded twisted pair
19 Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
* BA
A1
B3
1C
20 After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
* any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time
Refer to the exhibit. What command was executed on a host computer to produce the results shown?
route PRINT
* arp -a
arp -d
netstat
telnet
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
* Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.
2 Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Network layer
Transport layer
* Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
* Data-link layer
3 Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
* the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
* the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable
4 What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
* addressing
* error detection
* frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution
5 When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
* The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
6 What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
recognizes streams of bits
* identifies the network layer protocol
* makes the connection with the upper layers identifies the source and destination applications
* insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting
7 What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
MAC sublayer
Physical layer
* Logical Link
Control sublayer
Network layer
8 Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
* A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.
9 Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?
* header field - preamble and stop frame
data field - network layer packet
data field - physical addressing
trailer field - FCS and SoF
10 Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
* Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
* A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.
11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
* Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.
12 Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
application
physical
transport
internet
data link
* network access
13 What is the primary purpose of ARP?
translate URLs to IP addresses
* resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses
14
Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
* No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
15
Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
* A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
* A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.
16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
dynamically assigned
* copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
* contains a 3 byte OUI
* 6 bytes long
32 bits long
17 Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
reduction in cross-talk
* minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
* division into broadcast domains
increase in the throughput of communications
18 What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
* coaxial thicknet
copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
optical fiber
* shielded twisted pair
19 Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
* BA
A1
B3
1C
20 After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
* any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time
Refer to the exhibit. What command was executed on a host computer to produce the results shown?
route PRINT
* arp -a
arp -d
netstat
telnet
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
Network Fundamentals - Chapter 8 Exam Answers
1 Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
* backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable2
In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11
* RJ-45
Type F3
When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
* when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router4
With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
* the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
5
Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
* Physical
6
An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
* OTDR
TDR
multimeter
7
XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
* coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
* Cat6 UTP
STP
8
What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
* Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.
9
What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
goodput
* frequency
amplitude
* throughput
crosstalk
**bandwidth
10
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
* crossover cable
straight-through cable
11
In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
* fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP
12
Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
*
13
Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
* wireless
acoustic
14
Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
* It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
* It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.
15
Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
* generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source
16
What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
* more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area
17
What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
* the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket
18
What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
* create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
* backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable2
In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11
* RJ-45
Type F3
When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
* when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router4
With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
* the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
5
Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
* Physical
6
An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
* OTDR
TDR
multimeter
7
XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
* coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
* Cat6 UTP
STP
8
What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
* Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.
9
What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
goodput
* frequency
amplitude
* throughput
crosstalk
**bandwidth
10
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
* crossover cable
straight-through cable
11
In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
* fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP
12
Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
*
13
Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
* wireless
acoustic
14
Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
* It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
* It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.
15
Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
* generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source
16
What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
* more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area
17
What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
* the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket
18
What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
* create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
Network Fundamentals - Chapter 7 Exam Answers
1
Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
* non-deterministic
* less overhead
one station transmits at a time
* collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing2
What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
* facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated3
Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
* 2
4
84
What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
* Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.5
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
* 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af6
What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
* They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
* They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
* They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.
7
Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
* source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
* source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB
8
What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
* media sharing
application processes
* logical topology
intermediary device function
9
What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
* is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros
10
What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
* Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
* Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data
11
Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
* Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
* Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.
12
Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
LLC
* MAC
HDLC
NIC
13
What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
* Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
* defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
* Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions
14
What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
* The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.
15
What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
* The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
* The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.
16
What is a function of the data link layer?
provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
* provides for the exchange data over a common local media
17
Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
* the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
* the physical layer implementation
* the number of hosts to be interconnected
18
What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
define the logical topology
provide media access control
* support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame
19
A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
logical topology
* physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology
20
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
* Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
* non-deterministic
* less overhead
one station transmits at a time
* collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing2
What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
* facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated3
Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
* 2
4
84
What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
* Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.5
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
* 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af6
What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
* They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
* They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
* They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.
7
Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
* source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
* source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB
8
What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
* media sharing
application processes
* logical topology
intermediary device function
9
What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
* is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros
10
What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
* Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
* Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data
11
Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
* Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
* Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.
12
Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
LLC
* MAC
HDLC
NIC
13
What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
* Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
* defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
* Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions
14
What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
* The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.
15
What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
* The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
* The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.
16
What is a function of the data link layer?
provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
* provides for the exchange data over a common local media
17
Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
* the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
* the physical layer implementation
* the number of hosts to be interconnected
18
What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
define the logical topology
provide media access control
* support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame
19
A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
logical topology
* physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology
20
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
* Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
Network Fundamentals - Chapter 6 Exam Answers
1
How many bits make up an IPv4 address?128
64
48
* 32
2
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
* 255.255.255.192
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.2523
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
* IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1
4
Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
/24
/16
/20
* /27
/25
/28
5
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
* NAT is required for the host A network.
6
What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0
* 255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
7
Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
* This is a network address.
This is not a valid address.
8
What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
* is altered as packet is forwarded
* varies in length
* is used to forward packets
uses flat addressing
9
What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
* 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000
10
A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
* 172.16.192.160
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176
11
Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
* The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.
12
What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
* The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
* The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.
13
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.248
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.252
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.128
* 192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254
* 192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192
192.168.22.101 255.255.255.224
14
Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
* larger address space
faster routing protocols
* data types and classes of service
* authentication and encryption
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4
15
Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
* binary ANDing
16
What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
security
header format simplification
* expanded addressing capabilities
addressing simplification
17
Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
172.168.33.1
* 10.35.66.70
* 192.168.99.5
* 172.18.88.90
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5
18
Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
* Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
* IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.
19
Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26
* 172.16.4.155 /26
* 172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
* 172.16.4.207 /27
20
What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
an internet
* a network
an octet
* a radi
21
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
* The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
22
Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
LAN workstations
* servers
* network printers
* routers
remote workstations
laptops
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
How many bits make up an IPv4 address?128
64
48
* 32
2
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
* 255.255.255.192
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.2523
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
* IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1
4
Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
/24
/16
/20
* /27
/25
/28
5
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
* NAT is required for the host A network.
6
What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0
* 255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
7
Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
* This is a network address.
This is not a valid address.
8
What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
* is altered as packet is forwarded
* varies in length
* is used to forward packets
uses flat addressing
9
What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
* 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000
10
A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
* 172.16.192.160
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176
11
Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
* The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.
12
What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
* The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
* The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.
13
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.248
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.252
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.128
* 192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254
* 192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192
192.168.22.101 255.255.255.224
14
Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
* larger address space
faster routing protocols
* data types and classes of service
* authentication and encryption
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4
15
Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
* binary ANDing
16
What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
security
header format simplification
* expanded addressing capabilities
addressing simplification
17
Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
172.168.33.1
* 10.35.66.70
* 192.168.99.5
* 172.18.88.90
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5
18
Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
* Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
* IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.
19
Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26
* 172.16.4.155 /26
* 172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
* 172.16.4.207 /27
20
What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
an internet
* a network
an octet
* a radi
21
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
* The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
22
Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
LAN workstations
* servers
* network printers
* routers
remote workstations
laptops
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
Network Fundamentals - Chapter 5 Exam Answers
1
In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
* destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address
2
What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
*source and destination IP address
3
In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
* The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
4
Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
* time-to-live
header checksum
5
Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
* network portion
gateway address
6
Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
* 192.133.219.1
7
If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
* The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.
8
What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
* identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
9
What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
* static
standard
10
When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
* The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
*The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11 What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
* gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
* geographic location
* ownership
12
What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
*the next-hop address
13
Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
* router
hub
switch
* firewall
access point
bridge
14
What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
*performance degradation
* security issues
* limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility
15
Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
* 4
5
7
8
11
16
Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
* If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
* If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
* If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
* 10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0
18
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
* Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
* Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
* 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
* 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20
What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
* provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
* prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21
What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
* A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
* destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address
2
What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
*source and destination IP address
3
In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
* The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
4
Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
* time-to-live
header checksum
5
Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
* network portion
gateway address
6
Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
* 192.133.219.1
7
If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
* The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.
8
What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
* identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
9
What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
* static
standard
10
When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
* The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
*The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11 What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
* gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
* geographic location
* ownership
12
What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
*the next-hop address
13
Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
* router
hub
switch
* firewall
access point
bridge
14
What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
*performance degradation
* security issues
* limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility
15
Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
* 4
5
7
8
11
16
Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
* If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
* If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
* If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
* 10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0
18
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
* Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
* Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
* 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
* 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20
What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
* provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
* prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21
What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
* A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
Network Fundamentals - Chapter 4 Exam Answers
1 Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
* A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
* The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
2 After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
* 80
1024
1728
3 Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
*source and destination
4 Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
* minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery
5 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
* reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6 Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
* session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect
7 Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
* 1850
3431
3475
8 Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
* to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
9 During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
* The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
10 With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
* 0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535
11 Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
* UDP
HTTP
DNS
12 What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
* low overhead
* connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements
13 What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
* window size
acknowledgments
14 What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
* source port
15 Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
* to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
16 Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
* identifies the communicating applications
* identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media
17 Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
* flow control
connectionless services
* session establishment
* numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery
18 Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
* transport
network
19 Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
* This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
* This is a TCP header.
20 Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
* TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
* A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
* The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
2 After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
* 80
1024
1728
3 Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
*source and destination
4 Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
* minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery
5 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
* reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6 Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
* session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect
7 Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
* 1850
3431
3475
8 Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
* to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
9 During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
* The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
10 With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
* 0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535
11 Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
* UDP
HTTP
DNS
12 What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
* low overhead
* connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements
13 What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
* window size
acknowledgments
14 What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
* source port
15 Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
* to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
16 Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
* identifies the communicating applications
* identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media
17 Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
* flow control
connectionless services
* session establishment
* numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery
18 Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
* transport
network
19 Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
* This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
* This is a TCP header.
20 Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
* TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
Network Fundamentals - Chapter 3 Exam Answers
1 A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
* centralized administration
does not require specialized software
* security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure
2 Which of the following are benefits of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose three.)
centralized security
* easy to create
very scalable
* no centralized equipment required
* centralized administrator not required
centralized control of assets
3 Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
ASP
FTP
HTML
* HTTP
* HTTPS
IP
4 Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
routes email to the MDA on other servers
* receives email from the client's MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
* passes email to the MDA for final delivery
* uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
5 What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
HTTP
SSH
FQDN
* DNS
Telnet
SMTP
6 What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ARP
* DNS
PPP
* SMTP
* POP
ICMP
7 What are the two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
* applications
processes
* services
dialogs
syntax
daemons
8 What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
* acts as both a client and server within the same communication
requires centralized account administration
* hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
* can be used in client-server networks
does not require specialized software
centralized authentication is required
9 Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
* HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
10 Which are valid DNS resource record types? (Choose three.)
* A
* NS
MTA
* MX
FQDN
MAU
11 Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
MDA
IMAP
* MTA
POP
* SMTP
MUA
12 What is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
does not support authentication
consumes network bandwidth
utilizes client resources
not widely available
* does not support encryption
requires remote access
13 What are three common HTTP message types? (Choose three.)
* GET
PUSH
* POST
HTML
UPLOAD
* PUT
14 Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
* a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
* a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
* a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
* centralized administration
does not require specialized software
* security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure
2 Which of the following are benefits of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose three.)
centralized security
* easy to create
very scalable
* no centralized equipment required
* centralized administrator not required
centralized control of assets
3 Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
ASP
FTP
HTML
* HTTP
* HTTPS
IP
4 Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
routes email to the MDA on other servers
* receives email from the client's MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
* passes email to the MDA for final delivery
* uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
5 What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
HTTP
SSH
FQDN
* DNS
Telnet
SMTP
6 What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ARP
* DNS
PPP
* SMTP
* POP
ICMP
7 What are the two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
* applications
processes
* services
dialogs
syntax
daemons
8 What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
* acts as both a client and server within the same communication
requires centralized account administration
* hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
* can be used in client-server networks
does not require specialized software
centralized authentication is required
9 Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
* HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
10 Which are valid DNS resource record types? (Choose three.)
* A
* NS
MTA
* MX
FQDN
MAU
11 Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
MDA
IMAP
* MTA
POP
* SMTP
MUA
12 What is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
does not support authentication
consumes network bandwidth
utilizes client resources
not widely available
* does not support encryption
requires remote access
13 What are three common HTTP message types? (Choose three.)
* GET
PUSH
* POST
HTML
UPLOAD
* PUT
14 Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
* a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
* a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
* a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console
(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)
Outing Protocols and Concepts - Cisco CCNA Chapter 1 Exam Answers
1. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
The startup sequence will reset.
*The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.
The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.
The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements.
2.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The destination networks do not exist.
The IP addresses on the router interfaces must be configured as network addresses and not host addresses.
* The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.
Each interface must be configured with the clock rate command.
3.
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
This router only has two interfaces.
The router interfaces are not operational yet.
This router is configured to forward packets to remote networks.
* The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
* An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.
4.
Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the source and destination IP address in the packet before forwarding the frame.
* The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The router will use the destination MAC address to determine which interface to forward the packet.
The router will look up the MAC address of the S0/0/0 interface in the ARP table and add it to the frame before forwarding.
* The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.
The frame was received on the S0/0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the Fa0/0 interface.
5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
* VTY interface
* console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
* privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode
6. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
* ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.
* Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS
7.
Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
* Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.
8. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
* packet switching
extension of network segments
* segmentation of broadcast domains
* selection of best path based on logical addressing
election of best path based on physical addressing
9.
Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.1.1, it will be forwarded out interface Fa0/0.
* If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
* If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 172.20.255.1, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/0.
If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 192.16.5.101, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
10.
The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
* Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
* Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
* Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2
11.
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The passwords are encrypted.
The current configuration was saved to NVRAM.
The configuration that is shown will be the one used on the next reboot.
* The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.
12.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
source IP address: 192.168.10.129
source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
* destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
* destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
13. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
ensures that a password is entered before entering user EXEC mode
* sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet
requires check123 to be entered before the configuration can be saved
creates a local user account for logging in to a router or switch
14. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
* load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS
15. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
* decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination MAC Address in the IP Header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
leaves the Layer 2 frame header intact when decapsulating the Layer 3 packet
* uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
* encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into a special Layer 1 frame and forwards it to the exit interface
16. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
straight-through
rollover
* cross-over
serial
17. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.
* Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
* Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.
If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot support load balancing.
18. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
* the last restart method
the command buffer contents
the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
* the configuration register settings
* the location from where the IOS loaded
19.
Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
* 1
2
3
* 4
5
6
20. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
RAM
* TFTP server
NVRAM
setup routine
* Flash memory
terminal
21. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config flash
Router1(config)# copy running-config flash
Router1# copy running-config startup-config
* Router1(config)# copy running-config startup-config
Router1# copy startup-config running-config
Router1(config)# copy startup-config running-config
22. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, FLASH, ROM
FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
* NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
FLASH, TFTP, ROM
23. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
only the Layer 2 source address
only the Layer 2 destination address
only the Layer 3 source address
only the Layer 3 destination address
* the Layer 2 source and destination address
the Layer 3 source and destination address
The startup sequence will reset.
*The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.
The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.
The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements.
2.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The destination networks do not exist.
The IP addresses on the router interfaces must be configured as network addresses and not host addresses.
* The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.
Each interface must be configured with the clock rate command.
3.
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
This router only has two interfaces.
The router interfaces are not operational yet.
This router is configured to forward packets to remote networks.
* The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
* An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.
4.
Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the source and destination IP address in the packet before forwarding the frame.
* The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The router will use the destination MAC address to determine which interface to forward the packet.
The router will look up the MAC address of the S0/0/0 interface in the ARP table and add it to the frame before forwarding.
* The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.
The frame was received on the S0/0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the Fa0/0 interface.
5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
* VTY interface
* console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
* privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode
6. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
* ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.
* Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS
7.
Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
* Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.
8. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
* packet switching
extension of network segments
* segmentation of broadcast domains
* selection of best path based on logical addressing
election of best path based on physical addressing
9.
Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.1.1, it will be forwarded out interface Fa0/0.
* If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
* If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 172.20.255.1, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/0.
If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 192.16.5.101, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
10.
The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
* Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
* Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
* Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2
11.
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The passwords are encrypted.
The current configuration was saved to NVRAM.
The configuration that is shown will be the one used on the next reboot.
* The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.
12.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
source IP address: 192.168.10.129
source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
* destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
* destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
13. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
ensures that a password is entered before entering user EXEC mode
* sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet
requires check123 to be entered before the configuration can be saved
creates a local user account for logging in to a router or switch
14. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
* load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS
15. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
* decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination MAC Address in the IP Header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
leaves the Layer 2 frame header intact when decapsulating the Layer 3 packet
* uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
* encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into a special Layer 1 frame and forwards it to the exit interface
16. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
straight-through
rollover
* cross-over
serial
17. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.
* Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
* Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.
If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot support load balancing.
18. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
* the last restart method
the command buffer contents
the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
* the configuration register settings
* the location from where the IOS loaded
19.
Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
* 1
2
3
* 4
5
6
20. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
RAM
* TFTP server
NVRAM
setup routine
* Flash memory
terminal
21. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config flash
Router1(config)# copy running-config flash
Router1# copy running-config startup-config
* Router1(config)# copy running-config startup-config
Router1# copy startup-config running-config
Router1(config)# copy startup-config running-config
22. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, FLASH, ROM
FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
* NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
FLASH, TFTP, ROM
23. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
only the Layer 2 source address
only the Layer 2 destination address
only the Layer 3 source address
only the Layer 3 destination address
* the Layer 2 source and destination address
the Layer 3 source and destination address
